>The latest issue of _NCSE Reports_ (from the National Center for Science >Education, P.O.

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>The latest issue of _NCSE Reports_ (from the National Center for Science >Education, P.O. Box 9477, Berkeley, CA 94709) discusses a December 1991 >Gallup Poll which asked Americans whether or not they agreed with the >statement that "Man was created pretty much in his present form about >10,000 years ago." 47% agreed, 49% disagreed. Of those who disagreed, >80% said that they believed in God. Jim, was the data more specific as to which "version" of God, that the 80% beleived in? Or was it just stated as "they beleived in "a" God? > (_NCSE Reports_ also points out that "people with more education >and income rejected this statement [the one quoted above] twice as >often as poorer, less educated respondents.") > A couple implications come to mind on this: 1) education removes some of the myth's surrounding man's need for a belief in a higher being, with emphasis on science and philosophy as the tools by which this is accomplished; 2) education, with income following, brings us to a state of self-sufficiency, therefore the concept of relying on a "all-powerful" creator who will provide us with sustenance, is transferred to the individual. Is it education alone or the monetary success that education can bring that causes someone to either reject previously accepted beliefs or not consider a belief system at all? Some evidence that it may be the former (education) which is more significant is that most studies of education level and religiosity find an inverse correlation. (For a summary of 43 such studies done between 1927 and 1982, see Burnham P. Beckwith, "The Effect of Intelligence on Religious Faith," Free Inquiry 6(2):46-53.)


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