Xref: ncsuvx sci.skeptic:1845 talk.religion.misc:22617 In article <4760@imagen.UUCP> isaak

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Xref: ncsuvx sci.skeptic:1845 talk.religion.misc:22617 In article <4760@imagen.UUCP> isaak@apolling (Mark Isaak) writes: }In article <15445@megaron.cs.arizona.edu>, gudeman@cs.arizona.edu }(David Gudeman) writes, regarding Biblical inerrancy: } }> ... God intervened to make sure that what was written was accurate. } }Does this apply to the version of the Bible which was once printed }listing one of the Commandments as "Thou shalt commit adultery"? 1631 edition (in England?) in Exodus 20:14 See also 1717 version which had Luke 20 on "The parable of the Vinegar" as opposed to the vineyard. See also pre-1702 Psalm 119:161 which replaced "Princes" with "printers" See also 1806 Bible which left the 'r' out of "fishers" in Ezekiel 47:10. See also 1810 bible which printed the word "life" in Luke 14:26 as "wife". See also 1801 book in Jude, 16th verse "murmurers" was sspelled "murderers". Guess God is not much of a proof-reader. }If you say that human error entered into that edition, how can you }so confidently assert that it didn't play a role in earlier versions? }For example, maybe the divine intervention phase wasn't in effect }when the Gnostic Gospels were excluded by fallible humans. Interesting question. Answers, please. "People think it must be fun to be a super genius, but they don't realize how hard it is to put up with all the idiots in the world." - Calvin ............................................................................ UUCP:jwm@aplvax.uucp BITNET:meritt%aplvm.BITNET INTERNET:jwm@aplcen.apl.jhu.edu


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